CHURCHES AGAINST GOD? [This page was updated on 09.03.25]

You're hearing about the following for the first time and think it's abstrusely absurd, like an absurd claim? Not at all! It's nothing new, Martin Luther already said "The Catholic Church is an Antichrist!" - NOT BECAUSE HE WAS ANGRY AT THE CATHOLIC CHURCH, or because of the Church's temporary behavior, BUT BASED ON THE FACTS (even if the Catholic Church's actions imply that it is purely angry, since in retrospect he initiated reforms which change the facts NOTHING).
Dr. also teaches this to many others. Walter Veit, see: youtube.com

There are 3 classifications of the Antichrist, and 7 definitions (listed below) according to 1 John and 2 John. Only in these 2 letters is the Antichrist also called Antichrist:
1. The spirit of the Antichrist [of the enemy or literally: of error, WORD G4106. (NOT OF DECEPTION! OF THE ENCOURAGEMENT THAT LEADS AS FALSE! DECEPTION IS A POORLY INTERPRETTED, REDUCED VERSION OF THE MEANING. SINCE PURE DECEPTION IS EXCEPT FROM THIS, EVEN THOUGH IT IS LITERALLY CALLED "SPIRIT OF ERROR", THE APPROPRIATE VERB IS TRANSLATED 4105 TIMES AS "DECIDE" INSTEAD OF "LEAD AS FALSE") & THEN THE IMPORTANT TERM "SPIRIT OF ERROR" IS LOST.]
2. many antichrists[plural] have been & are
3. The Antichrist[singular] who comes to end Satan's rule in this world (Satan is ruler, or god of this world ACCORDING TO: John 12:31 & 14:30 & 16:11 & 2 Corinthians 4:4 & Ephesians 2:2 & 1 John 2:15 to 16 & John 15:19)!



According to the Bible, Jesus was demonstrably born in the 9th or 10th month, half a year later than John the Baptist, and this can be calculated "exactly". And it is too cold for shepherds in the winter, at night in the pasture. Sheep were always brought into the stable after the Feast of Tabernacles, so there were never any sheep in the pasture in Israel in December, as is common knowledge. Had it been a particularly warm year, it still wouldn't have made sense, since everyone would have said "it would have been too cold"... I don't think so... would God plan that way and give Satan room to sow doubt? But that's not a question, since that would be 2-3 months too late.

The nativity story is a fairy tale and isn't in the Bible. The Bible doesn't say when the three kings came, only that they came.



Practices/customs of the Catholic & Protestant Church adopted from paganism (including/possibly satanic deities):
(Preliminary information: "Baal" "Ashera" "Dagon" "Tammutz" are all SATANS mentioned in the Old Testament.)

Satanic? (Baal, Ashera Cult)	Is it in the Bible? Does it have biblical justification? Isn't it blasphemy?	Sin, and other customs:	Explanation:	Link(s) to check:
✔	❌	Christmas	Was "Christianized," from a satanic festival to a pale pagan festival (December 25th is the birth festival of the sun god "Sol," at which people exchanged gifts, whose other name is supposedly "Tammutz"). The festival supposedly celebrates the son of "Baal" and "Ashera," who, like a sun, is supposed to be a light for the world. Regarding Link 4: "(is not clarified) the question of whether Christmas was associated with the date as a reaction to the Sol festival?" IMPOSSIBLE TO CLAIM THAT AS A COINCIDENCE. Conclusion: According to the churches, it's okay to spread at least one lie about GOD'S birth date, to celebrate it on a pagan/satanic festival, along with fairy tales, even though ONLY 2 SATANIC people actually celebrate birthdays in the Bible.	youtube.com youtube.com youtube.com evangelisch.de wikipedia.org wikipedia.org
✔	❌	Easter	Easter slowly replaced a festival of God, the Passover. Very mockingly, even in some Bible translations it says EASTER – a clear, extremely serious sin!!! When "Ashera" wanted to go to heaven to Baal (her husband), he threw her to earth in an egg. Therefore, Easter eggs were dyed red with blood, supposedly the blood of children. One possible origin of Easter. But even if this isn't true, Easter is definitely pagan (satanic).	youtube.com youtube.com
✔	❌	The Mitre	Emonymous with the sun god "Mitras." Possibly belongs to the "fish god" Satan named "DAGON" (he is said to be the father of Baal), fish hats. "DAGON" priests actually wore such fish-mouth hats! Since it was carved in stone, among other things, it can still be seen today! (Caution! Most links are for demonstration purposes only; the BIBLE should not be considered inspired by humans, since every scripture in the Bible is inspired by God the Holy Spirit, according to the Bible! Proof of God's existence can be found in Prospectus 1)	youtube.com youtube.com youtube.com wikipedia.org wikipedia.org evangelisch.de
✔	❌	Kissing the Ring	According to the 1907 Catholic Encyclopedia, in Chaldean times, a representative of "DAGON" was the head of the Church and was thought to be infallible! He was also addressed as "YOUR HOLINESS." Nations subjugated by Babylon were required to kiss the ring and shoe of the "God King." Kissing the ring was a greeting gesture to the "DAGON" Pope. The standard greeting to the Pope, even today.	⚙
✔	❌	St. Peter's Square, a sun wheel & the obelisk	The obelisk in the middle of St. Peter's Square (approx. 4,000 years old, from an Egyptian temple of a satanic deity). These obelisks were always erected as objects of power for the worship of satanic deities, and their names, such as "Baal," were engraved. In 2 Chronicles 34:4, sun pillars that were cut down are associated with "BAAL" and "ASHERAH." It is possible that this refers to obelisks. Interestingly, it is the only obelisk in Rome that is not inscribed with hieroglyphs. Dr. Cathy Burns, Masonic and Occult Symbols Illustrated, 1998, pages 340/341: The word "obelisk" literally means "Baal's stem" or "Baal's reproductive organ." An obelisk is almost always placed in the center of a circle, which represents the female genitalia, and thus both together symbolize the physical sexual act. "Pornographic" material was already being spread by Satans at that time. There is a satanic book, similar to the Psalms, which, according to Roger Liebi, is highly pornographic, or rather, pure pornography.	schlachterbibel.de schlachterbibel.de
✔	❌	Change THE 4TH COMMANDMENT! Sunday	Sunday (THE SUN DAY), the Eighth DAY (not the 7th!), is, as the name, which is of satanic origin, suggests, in honor of the sun god. Because there is no better justification in the Bible, Romans chapter 14 verses 1-6 are often cited as justification, although it is clear to anyone who reads it that it is about eating or fasting. ON THE CONTRARY: THE BIBLE MAKES IT CLEAR THROUGHOUT THAT FOREVER THE SHABBATS IS THE DAY ON WHICH WE SHOULD REST. AFTER ALL, JESUS ​​WAS CRUCIFIED BECAUSE HE HEALED ON THE SHABBATS AND SAID: 'TAKE THE MAT AND WALK', which is permitted. A link to the BIBLE PASSAGE of absurd justification, which is clear to EVERYONE who reads this, in the Schlachter Bible 2000 (Caution! The link to the translation is not a recommendation! Among other things, this translation also contains the 'ADDED BAPTISM CALL,' which is a grave sin according to Revelation (Schlachter LINK2) & one should not participate in sin! (Schlachter LINK3)). But that people, including priests, will take teachers who tell them what they want to hear, not what God says, is foretold (Schlachter LINK4).	youtube.com 1_schlachterbibel.de 2_schlachterbibel.de 3_schlachterbibel.de 4_schlachterbibel.de
✔	❌	Baptismal call	In Revelation 22:18-19 it says that whoever takes away from this book or adds to it, God will add to that person all the plagues that are written in this book. And no, of course that doesn't just apply to Revelation, and all other books can be rewritten, ridiculous. The Catholic Church has added a FALSE baptismal formula (Matthew 28:19): In the 1907 Catholic Encyclopedia, pages 262 and 263, it says that in the 2nd century the church changed the baptismal formula from "In the name of Jesus Christ" to "In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit." The same thing also appears in the Encyclopedia Britannica, 11th edition, volume 3, on page 365. As well as the Catholic ENCYCLOPEDIA VOLUME 8 confirms this again: Justin Martyr was one of the early fathers of the Roman Catholic Church, who helped transform the ancient baptismal formula "In the name of Jesus Christ" into the titles "Father, Son, Holy Spirit." The books must be borrowed or purchased; they are not available online.
✔	❌	Vatican	The name "Vatican" has an interesting meaning. It is composed of the Latin words "vatis" (meaning "prophetic") and "canus" (meaning "snake"). Therefore, one could interpret the Vatican as "the fortune-telling serpent." Who hasn't heard of the lecture hall in the Vatican, which is so colorful and shaped that when you enter, it looks as if you're looking into the face of a large snake. It doesn't get any more absurd than that.	buecher.de wasliestdu.de

What does God think of heathens and pagan things?
Numbers 24-8… He (God) will consume the Gentiles, His adversaries (or rather, enemies), and crush their bones (or bodies), and strike them down with arrows. The last part (with arrows...) clearly points to a further process. Ignoring this verse, among others, the opinion is held that pagan festivals can be celebrated IN HONOR OF GOD.

The Bible teaches that one should listen exactly to God's word:
King Saul did not do this & God rejected him, & sent him an evil spirit that led him astray (1 Sam. 15-22~23 [here God says disobedience is like idolatry, thus SATANISM]).
An old prophet deceives a prophet into acting against God's instruction by lying (by saying an angel had told him to change), & God killed the prophet because he disobeyed his instruction (NOT the one who lied) (1 Kings 13-21~24).
When a bearer reached for the Ark of the Covenant because of oxen stumbling, God killed him, since it could only be touched by the poles (2 Sam. 6-6~7).
Also ignored: Numbers 3-4: To Moses' brother Aaron. God killed two of Aaron's sons because they did not take from the fire of the altar to offer incense to God as God had commanded, and made their own fire.
God also did not accept that Jeroboam had invented a holiday in his own heart.
And even in the churches after Jesus' crucifixion, several fell asleep (died because of their sins).



In Gal#4-10 G3906(LINK to the word G3906 in the free dictionary LSJ.gr https://lsj.gr/wiki/παρατηρέω): Some translate the word as "observed", although the word is translated as observed, this meaning is actually partly questionable (in Aristotle's Rhetoric 1405b33 - the only reference, "observe" actually fits better, see in the download area).Gal#4-10 in short: You observe the feasts of God. In fact, the word G3906 also means "to observe while standing nearby," or "to beware of something," etc. DEPENDING ON THE CONTEXT!!!! One could interpret "beobachten" (observe), I would say maliciously or misguidedly, since it (G3906) also means "obey (an order)" (in Dio Cassius 53:10, see also the download section). In German, one could say "beobachten Befehle" (obey orders), so that theoretically makes sense, although the question is whether the German "beobachten" (observe) doesn't broaden the meaning of the word too much, for example, "I observe you without noticing you." The basic meaning of G3906 is "to observe while standing nearby," and it does NOT mean to pay attention to something, but rather to direct one's "eyes" to something! Which could easily be misinterpreted in Galatians 4-10, when translated as "OBSERVED."
[YOU DON'T THINK GALATIANS 4-10 CAN BE TRANSLATED LIKE THAT AND THEN BE ABSOLUTELY CORRECT? GRAMMATICALLY AND CONTEXTUALLY? TAKE 2 SECONDS AND COPY THE PRE-MADE QUESTIONS INTO THE FREE COPILOT AI (LINKED) THAT CAN Speak ANCIENT GREEK AND SEE THE ANSWER FOR YOURSELF. IT'S BEST TO CLICK ON THE THINK DEEPER FUNCTION! A CLEAR EXPLANATION AND EXPLANATION OF THE CONTEST (INCLUDING THE VERSES THAT PROVE IT) CAN BE FOUND BELOW.]



But you have to look at the overall context, so the question is irrelevant! There must be feasts because the Antichrist [whose spirit was already in the world around 90 AD, according to 1 John] will seek to change times (FESTIVALS) and the law, according to Dan#7-25. Anyone who seriously says that GOD means satanic festivals [so the Antichrist will seek to CHANGE satanic festivals {WHICH INCLUDES ABOLISHING THEM AS A POSSIBLE - which the Catholic Church also did}] because GOD has just rejected his "ETERNAL FESTIVALS," which even have prophetic significance, and "according to erroneous thinking" in Galatians 4-9 calls them "weak and miserable principles" [which actually describes, among other things, the view of the festivals], even though they will be celebrated again in the future [so weak and miserable principles, until in the future they will no longer be weak and miserable], should remain silent and listen to those who listen to God (1 John 4-6), and not to man-made misguidance. In Zechariah 14-16...19, the Gentiles must (IN THE FUTURE) celebrate GOD'S Feast of Tabernacles, otherwise God will punish them. A clear contradiction. Celebrating festivals can also be understood as worship.
One thing that also stands out here is that before GOD (since all scripture was inspired by the Holy Spirit, i.e. GOD) talks about his supposedly now miserable festivals, saying that it is bad to celebrate them, HE suddenly and extremely prominently addresses the WORSHIP OF PAGAN THINGS in the flow of speech in Gal. 4-9, and accordingly equates the worship of his festivals with or similar to the worship of Hridnic things. This, in order to then deify pagan festivals in the future, without any prophecy, which would have to be legitimized according to Malachi?
That this is logically insane is quite clear.



GALATIANS 4-10 IS THE ONLY VERSE THAT, IF MISTRANSLATED & MISUNDERSTOOD, WOULD LABEL GOD'S OWN FESTIVALS AS SOMETHING BAD [AS A PRIME EXAMPLE OF TRYING TO BE SAVED BY THE LAW, WHICH WOULD BE AN ABSURD EXAMPLE], OTHERWISE THERE IS NO ONE ELSE WHO WOULD DO THIS. BUT WHAT DO YOU MAKE OF GOD WHEN YOU SAY, GOD SAYS: MY OWN FESTIVALS ARE POOR, THOSE OF THE GENTILES/SATANS ARE THE GOOD FESTIVALS! AS IF GOD COULDN'T CREATE HIS OWN GOOD FESTIVALS, THE GOD OF GODS WHO KNOWS THE FUTURE AND EVERYTHING. THAT IS PURE BLASPHEMY. PAGAN (SATANIC) AND MAN-MADE THINGS ARE REJECTED OR HATEFUL IN THE BIBLE, AND JESUS ​​DENOMINED IT. The believers emigrated to America because the CHURCH was killing Christians (approx. 50-100 million), which is why the American Constitution stated: "NO ONE SHALL BE PERSECUTED BECAUSE OF HIS FAITH" (late consequence: Today there are PUBLIC Satanic temples/churches in America, and Satanism is a religion there). AS IF THE EARLIER CHRISTIANS ALL FLED TO AMERICA BECAUSE THEY DIDN'T UNDERSTAND THAT GOD NOW THINKS PAGAN (SATANIC, I.E. HOSTILE) THINGS ARE GREAT AND IS MAKING THEM HIS OWN, TOTALLY ABSURD.



The question is, what makes the difference for you that makes you think God is saying, not literally but for you anyway, that celebrating satanic pagan festivals is okay.



God wants to fight against the pagans in the future and will throw the pagans and their Satans into hell, but until then we should be able to celebrate the pagan festivals?



What has changed in your opinion that something like this is okay now?
1. God? No! God doesn't change. (Mal. 3-6 & Heb. 13-8 James 1-17)
2. The people, the world, and therefore God's opinion? Yes, but NO. God's opinion on the future of the Gentiles is clearly stated: hell. (Rev#21-8)
3. The Satans behind it? No, the judgment has remained the same until the future of the final events of Revelation.
According to the Bible, Satan's servants pose as servants of God. The logical consequence of this is that they then mistranslate the Bible, explain it incorrectly, and teach it incorrectly, and mislead the flock as best they can. The Bible clearly calls misleading a satanic practice (2 Corinthians 11-13, 15 disguised apostles, disguised servants of righteousness, which is high in God, and a disguised Satan).
Please read the story of Balak and Balaam (Numbers 22 to 24) to find out what a stumbling block is. Jesus says, before my eye/arm/leg becomes a stumbling block and becomes sin, I will pluck it out/cut it off/cut it off (occurs 3 times: Matthew 5-29, Matthew 18-8, 9, and Mark 9-47). AN OFFENSE IS SOMETHING THAT COULD LEAD TO SIN.

IF YOU SAY THAT IN DAN 7-25 THE PAGAN FESTIVALS WERE INDIRECTLY CALLED UP, IS THAT THE LIMIT? OR IS IT ALLOWED, ACCORDING TO 2 Corinthians 3:17, TO CHRISTIANIZE OTHER PAGAN/SATANIC CUSTOMS AND HONOR GOD? IF NO ONE IS HARMED AND IT DOESN'T CONTRARY TO OTHER NT LAWS? IS IT ALLOWED TO SAVE INCENSE TO GOD ON OLD PAGAN ALTARS (ARE THERE STILL ANY) OR TO PLACE SHOWBREAD FOR GOD ON THEM?
IS THERE A LIMIT TO THE ADOPTION OF PAGAN WAYS? IN THE OT IT SAYS YOU'RE NOT ALLOWED TO CUT YOUR HAIR AND BEARD LIKE THE GENTILES, BUT NOW FISH HATS LIKE THE DAGON PRIESTS WORE ARE OKAY? ABSURDLY ANTI-CHRISTIAN.
NOWHERE DOES GOD SAY WE'RE ADOPTING THIS PAGAN WAY, AND THAT'S THE END, BECAUSE GOD DOESN'T SAY THAT AT ALL, AND DOESN'T ALLOW IT AT ALL.
Amos 3:7 "The Lord God does nothing without revealing his plan to his servants the prophets." — BUT THERE'S NOTHING ABOUT "WE NOW CELEBRATE LIKE OUR ENEMIES, THE GENTILES," OR "THE 10 COMMANDMENTS ARE BEING CHANGED - THE 2ND COMMANDMENT IS BEING REMOVED COMPLETELY, THE 10TH COMMANDMENT IS BEING MADE INTO 2 COMMANDMENTS, AND THE 4TH COMMANDMENT ABOUT SEN SHABBATS IS BEING REWRITTEN TO SUNDAY (to fit the sun worship cult)." Instead, Jesus says: Mat 5-18 "Until heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or titter will pass from the law until all things are accomplished. (By all, this literally means everything prophesied in the Bible, until the new earth and the new heaven from Revelation 21-1 / 2 Peter 3-13 / ISAIAH 65-17 / ISAIAH 66-22)" Also, ISAIAH 66-17: "...those who eat swine's flesh, mice, and other abominations shall be cut off (killed!) together, says the Lord." & YES, THIS IS ABOUT FUTURE THINGS, WHICH IS MADE CLEAR BY ISAIAH 66-15. THE GENERAL UNDERSTANDING OF WHAT ISAIAH #66-17 REFERS TO: This prophecy refers to the coming judgment on the Day of the Lord. This is expected to happen in the end times, when God judges the world.

So, again, one has to lie around the fact that neither pork nor Christians are meant by this. & the 1260 years from Revelation, among others, are only days & not years (although according to Daniel they are guaranteed to be years), even though they were fulfilled ABSOLUTELY TO THE YEAR (538-1798, more on that in a moment). IS THAT SUPPOSED TO BE AN INCREDIBLE COINCIDENCE & HAVE NOTHING TO DO WITH THE PROPHECY BEING FULFILLED IN DETAIL? ABSURD & "AMAZING" AS IT IS ALSO CALLED, CAUSING AMAZING REV#13-3 "And all the earth wondered after the beast."

The Catholic Church killed approximately 100 million Christians for heresy, who wanted to keep the 4th Commandment, the Sabbath (NOT SUNDAY!), and those believers who wanted to translate and preach the Bible (as commanded by the Gospel). The ransoming of sins should also be mentioned.
For the persecution and killing of other Christians, even if they had sinned, there was and is of course no biblical justification, not even close to it.

Because the Bible says in Revelation that the first beast (=military power), which all will worship, will persecute believers for 1260 years, which exactly applied to the Catholic Church (year 538, last resistance in the war against the Church, was broken militarily, and the 1260 years of persecution begin and end in 1798), then receives a wound from the sword ("SWORD" always means an act of war in the Bible) (in 1798, the Pope was deposed and arrested by the French, thanks to military action, literally put in chains), the mortal wound of the sword is healed again. (1815 - The Papal States recover), many people believe that part has been fulfilled. It should be said that VERY OFTEN NOT EVERYTHING HAPPENS IMMEDIATELY, but in stages, as something else follows. And as is common in prophecy, it may even be fulfilled A SECOND TIME, although that's not necessary, and if so, it doesn't have to go into such detail. Another example: how, among other things, the "abomination of desolation" prophecy will be repeated, as explicitly stated by Jesus.

WHO OF THE BIBLE TEACHERS, READERS, AND THINKERS NOW SAYS THAT THIS IS NOT POSSIBLE BECAUSE THE CATHOLIC CHURCH IS NO LONGER A MILITARY POWER, OR RATHER SAYS THAT ISLAM WITH THE MAHDI (Islamic Messiah) WILL BE ONE OF THE BEASTS, TO THEM MUST BE SAY, HOW ABOUT BOTH, purely theoretically?

Martin Luther said the Catholic Church is the Antichrist. Why is not questionable, because it did exactly what the Antichrist will do according to Dan. 7-25. Looking back, even including the 1260 years of prophecy, including the sword wound and healing of this actual mortal wound.

According to the Bible definition, Satan is behind Islam, which EXPLICITLY fulfills ALL 7 Bible definitions of the Antichrist and leaves none out. THAT LETS YOU THINK THEORICALLY: the popes and the majority of bishops were and are theoretically not with God, and theoretically glorify and FIGHT, in the form of misguidance wherever possible, including theoretically for "BAAL" and the highest Satan "Lucifer". Since the Bible clearly states that such a thing exists, infiltration through deception. Theoretically, one could say that, among other things, The churches belong to satanic deities (that's how Satan is referred to in the Old Testament, AS GODS), and that these deities are waging war against God not only through the churches, but also through them.
One must not forget that the coming war is the final war and the two beasts (military powers) of Satan. So one must think bigger.




Churches in a Timeline - In 1 Timothy #4-1...3 it is about demonic teachings, such as the prohibition of marriage. According to these verses, at least one of the three divisions of the Antichrist (1. Spirit of... 2. Many Anti... 3. The Antichrist) will forbid marriage, which the CHURCH did, even though GOD even requires two children as a prerequisite for a church leader in 1 Timothy #3:4...5. In 1 Timothy 4-4, God logically doesn't speak of unclean animals, but of those defined as food. Again, I refer to Isaiah 66-17, the future slaughter of those who eat animals "not defined as food," committing such abominations.
Obviously, there is a high probability that the Protestant and Catholic churches are both at least a preliminary prophecy fulfilling the final prophecy, similar to the "abomination of desolation" prophecy. This has been stated before and will be stated again. Thus, there is a high probability that the "role" of the beast theoretically passes/passed on to at least the theoretical Islamic beast, since the final battle described in the Bible is against "GOG" and "THE KINGS OF ARABIA." This is not spiritually far-fetched, since, among other things, the "BAAL" cult used to be located where Islam has spread today and is today. Arab countries, along with Russia and China, are THEORETICALLY the opponents of the final war. This is to the kings of Arabia and specifically named Arab countries, and Russia was prophesied in the Bible about 1,000 years before Islam. Basically, these "three parties" Russia, China & the Arab League are also involved in military strategic cooperation.




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Antichristian means, roughly defined, to position oneself in place of GOD and thus to act (e.g. speak) against GOD, which is always hostile.

The 7 definitions of "the one Antichrist", "the many Antichrists", "the SPIRIT of the Antichrist", in short - of everything that is Antichrist:
Whoever fulfills even ONE is already ANTICHRISTIAN and acts against GOD, and possibly even puts his word above GOD'S word and thus places himself above GOD (except for the Jews whose view was determined by GOD according to "2 Cor 3:14" & "Rom 11:25" & "Rom 11:7 to 8" & "Isa 6:9-10" & "Matt 13:14 to 15" & "Mark 4:12").

Definitions of the Antichrist before 1 John #2-26:
1. They came out from us
2. denies the Father
3. denies the Son (whoever denies the Son does not have the Father either)

#2-26 I wrote this to you about those who deceive or mislead you

Definitions of the Antichrist after 1 John #2-26:

4. denies Jesus as God in human form on earth (God in the flesh)
5. does not listen to those who listen to God.
6. deviates from the teaching of Christ (thus also from the law, and the crucifixion and its reason; in short, contradicts the teaching of Christ, if not the entire Bible)
This is from 1 John #3-7 #4-6 & 2 John #1-5~11 summarized.
7. They will try to make friends, greet you, and try to build a certain community. Which would give Satan room (Eph. 4-27 room = opportunity, cf. room for repentance, Hebrews 12-17 & 2 Peter 3-9). So they will try to get an opportunity for community, because from such a position one can better justify oneself and is more credible.
How, is something similar to what we believe, and we agree in a certain way, instead of having no community at all, no unity.
One must always think of all people, many are easily influenced and misled. Therefore, clear boundaries are desired.
Historically, there has been a lot of war between Islamic people and Christians, but the claim that they are the same GOD and have the same origins always remained.

But anyone who is wise knows the answer to all questions about the Bible and GOD, which is: "IT'S ONLY ABOUT THE SPIRIT" EVERYTHING IN THE BIBLE IS ONLY ABOUT THE SPIRIT!
WHAT GOD FORBIDDS, ALLOWS, DOES, IT ALL HAS ONLY ONE REASON: THE SPIRIT.
& THE OT & NT ARE OF COURSE EQUAL.
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Every word is an action, and every action is/has a statement.
Every DECISION is either satanic or divine.
What is from God and what is from Satan is defined by the Bible, not a human being.
If you do something that is not from God, you are doing something against God, for the Satans.
Whoever knows about such evil deeds and remains silent about them is participating in sin.
Not everyone who calls God "Lord" enters the Kingdom of God according to the Bible,
not even those who have cast out demons in his name.
What have you done in his name?
The message of a Christmas celebration is that you can blaspheme, mock, and ridicule God in finds order,
because one may find the custom a beautiful experience (if, as now, one knows that
Christmas is satanic).
According to the Bible, God cannot be mocked or provoked. [👇 2 images from the explanation of the New Covenant follow]
You don't have to be a profiler to recognize the COMPLETELY unjustifiable actions of the churches, which are also prophesied, to see that this does not fit into any logical picture. After the death of the apostles, with which they founded congregations at a bitter and hard price (3 of them were crucified, if not one of the three was even skinned alive because he did what he did), according to the churches, one is allowed to become a pagan. NO, ACTUALLY THE MORONIC STATEMENT IS THAT GOD FOUND HIS OWN "POOR" & Pagan/Satanic was so great that he wanted to adopt it as his own customs and festivals, according to Galatians 4-9...10. And yes, the 2000 German edition of the Germanic Bible even writes this as a note: "This means the festivals are according to Jewish customs." Meaning, what God prescribed as customs.



LINK TO THE free MS COPILOT AI

TO COPY FOR GALATIANS#4-10 & G3906:

[THE QUESTIONS ARE WRITTEN SO THAT THEY, ALONG WITH THE ANSWERS, CONVEY KNOWLEDGE]
------------> 1ST QUESTION: <------------
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https://lsj.gr/wiki/παρατηρέω
IT SAYS: "German (Pape) [page 503] next to, while standing on something, pay attention, lie in wait; Arist. rhet. 2, 6 H. A. 9, 34; Xen. Mem. 3, 14, 4; καὶ ἐνεδρεύειν, Pol. 17, 3, 2; esp. Sp., like N.T.; observe, guard, τοὺς τόπους, Pol. 1, 29, 4, more often; ὅπως τοῦτο μ ὴ γένοιτο, παρατηρῶν διετέλουν, Dem. 18, 161; dah. beware of something, e.g. B. τὴν εἰσβολὴν τῶν ὑπεναντίων, Pol. 3, 77, 2. Also = observe, follow, D. C. 53, 10."

QUESTION IS: IT CAN ALSO MEAN "to beware of something", SO "παρατηρέω".
1. ACCORDING TO PAPE, WHAT IS THE REFERENCE WHERE THE WORD IS USED LIKE THAT?
2. IS THE WORD παρατηρέω USED ON ITSELF TO MEAN "to beware of something" OR IS IT A MIX OF THE WORD "παρατηρέω" AND ANOTHER ONE WHICH THEN MEANS to beware of something (IN GREEK TWO WORDS ARE SOMETIMES COMBINED INTO ONE)?
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______________ANSWER TO QUESTION 1:______________[SO an answer that the AI ​​then gives would be, for example, the FOLLOWING:]

1. According to Pape, which reference speaks for the meaning "to beware of something"? In the entry on παρατηρέω from the Concise Dictionary of the Greek Language (Pape, page 503), in addition to the basic meanings such as “to pay attention to something,” “to observe,” and “to guard,” explicit reference is made to the following passages, among others:  – In Demosthenes, 18, 161, where the text speaks of “παρατηρῶν διετέλουν,” which indicates that one should beware of certain events (e.g., enemy attacks). – In Polybius, 3, 77, 2, where, for example, it is written about the need to beware of an enemy invasion (τὴν εἰσβολὴν τῶν ὑπεναντίων). These quotations concern precisely the usage in which observation turns into an act of caution – that is, “to beware of something.” Pape thus documents that this specific meaning comes into play in certain contexts.

2. Is παρατηρέω used solely for “to beware of something,” or is it a combination of two meanings?
The verb "παρατηρέω" is etymologically composed of the parts παρά ("beside, near") and τηρέω ("to guard, to watch over"). This combination has developed into an independent, polysemous word in the Greek language, which, depending on the context, conveys various nuances – from "to observe" to "to pay attention to something" to "to beware of something." Thus, it is not a combination of "παρατηρέω" and an additional, separate word that specifically adds the meaning "to guard against something." Rather, "παρατηρέω" as a whole covers a spectrum of meanings, which also includes the aspect of caution.
The sources – LSJ and Pape – show that παρατηρέω is used as an independent, polysemous verb whose semantic field varies depending on the context. In one sense, the verb covers pure observation or monitoring, but in another, it also implies the aspect of "being careful" or "paying attention to something." Thus, it is not a compound formation in which an additional term merges with "παρατηρέω," but rather an expansion of the lexical meaning of the same word. The word is therefore used as such in both senses, whereby the context (such as military situations or warnings) makes it clear that this also means careful consideration or guarding against danger.
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------------> 2. QUESTION: <-------------
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CAN I ALSO TRANSLATE THE VERSE GALATIANS#4-10 AS FOLLOWS:

GAL#4-10: YOU BEWARE OF DAYS & MONTHS & TIMES & YEARS.
GAL#4-11: I FEAR THAT I HAVE ENDEAVOURED FOR YOU IN VAIN.

OR IS THAT PURELY GRAMMATICALLY NOT POSSIBLE (actually a useless question BUT answer it truthfully)?
EXTREMELY IMPORTANT: Purely grammatically, nothing more & nothing less (so don't explain the contextual view of the churches etc., I'll ask something about that in a moment & thus it is for this Answer: Forbidden, as is why others translate it differently (it depends on understanding, and that's different for me!)!
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______________ANSWER TO QUESTION 2:______________

Here is a purely grammatical consideration:

Galatians 4:10 – "You beware of days & months & times & years." The suggested translation uses the expression "sich hüten vor," which functions perfectly correctly in German as a reflexive verb with the corresponding preposition ("vor" + dative). The words "Tage, Monats, Zeiten, Jahren" are in the correct dative forms (plural) – exactly as the construction "sich hüten vor etwas" requires. Purely grammatically, there are no errors here, even though other translations often use the expression "achtet auf." This is a free lexical decision, but one that is formally correct.

Galatians 4:11 – "I fear that I have striven for you in vain." This sentence is also grammatically constructed: It is a main clause ("I fear") with an introduced subordinate clause ("that I have striven for you in vain"). The phrase "to strive for you" is based on a construction in which the verb requires an accusative object ("you") with the preposition "around." While the reflexive "to strive for" is the more common phrase in modern German, the variant "to strive for you" is not grammatically incorrect—provided one considers the overused participle as the expression of an actual verbal action. Thus, from a purely structural point of view, it is a permissible formulation.

In summary: From a purely grammatical perspective, both suggested translations—"You beware of days & months & times & years" and "I fear that I have striven for you in vain"—are correctly constructed. The lexical choice differs from the It uses idioms common in other translations, but in no way violates grammatical rules.
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========Interim information for you:=======
THAT MEANS, IF I DO NOT THINK THAT GOD, IN THE LETTER TO THE GALATIANS, DESCRIBES HIS OWN FESTIVALS AS POOR (the Catholic Church even says "NOT SALVATIONARY" and that would even include ALL Jewish traditions!), AND THUS DESCRIBES FUTURE Pagan FESTIVALS AS BETTER/GREAT (CHRISTMAS & CO.), AND THUS INDIRECTLY REFERS TO THEM, I CAN ALSO TRANSLATE/UNDERSTAND THE VERSE GALATIANS 4-10 IN THIS WAY!



------------> 3. QUESTION: <-------------
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1. THE WORD παρατηρέω IS IN THE SAME FORM IN THE PAPE EXAMPLES & IN GALATIANS 4-10, RIGHT?
2. & THE GRAMAT IS BASICALLY THE SAME?
PLEASE COMPARE THE PAPE EXAMPLES FOR THIS, HERE IS THE ANCIENT GREEK GALATIANS 4-10 TEXT.
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______________ANSWER TO QUESTION 3:______________
In essence, in both cases the usage is based on the same root word and the same basic semantic meaning. Nevertheless, there are differences in the concrete word form, depending on the context:

Form of the verb in Galatians 4:10 versus Pape examples: In In the ancient Greek text of Galatians 4:10, the verb appears in the finite form:

Galatians 4:10: "Ὑμεῖς παρατηρεῖτε …" Here, the 2nd person plural is in the present indicative. This form gives the sentence the character of a direct request or statement.

In the examples cited by Pape, the same root word παρατηρέω is used, but nonfinite forms are also found there, for example, as a participle. The form παρατηρῶν is cited several times, for example in Demosthenes 18:161, which is an active, present participle and describes a continuous, observing attitude. Also in the example from Polybius 3:77:2, which the meaning "to beware of something" clarifies, either the finite or a participle form can be found - depending on the sentence structure.

Conclusion to Question 1: The basic meaning and the morphological system are the same, but in Galatians 4:10 the finite, actively conjugated form (2nd person plural present indicative) is explicitly shown, while Pape examples can also show forms (such as participles) that are required in the respective syntactical contexts.

Grammatical Agreement: Basically, the grammatical structure in both Galatians 4:10 and the Pape examples is based on the same paradigm:

Both variants originate from the present stem και, reflecting the active aspect of the verb.

In Galatians 4:10, the finite verb takes over the direct address of the readership ("ὑμεῖς παρατηρεῖτε ..."), which is typical of direct instructions or statements in the New Testament.

In Pape's examples, depending on syntactical necessity, the verb is used either as a finite form or as a participle to express the ongoing character (observing, being attentive, being on guard against ...).

Conclusion to Question 2: The grammar (i.e., the underlying inflection, the formation of the present stem, and the possibility of forming both finite and nonfinite forms) is fundamentally the same in both cases. The differences arise solely from the respective syntactical framework (direct command vs. attributive or adverbial use).

In summary:

Sameness in the root word: Both uses are based on the same lexical core and cover the semantic range of "to pay attention to something." or "beware of something."

Differences in form: In Galatians 4:10, the finite, actively conjugated form (2nd person plural present indicative: παρατηρεῖτε) is explicitly used, whereas Pape examples can also show non-finite forms such as the participle (e.g., παρατηρῶν).

Basic grammatical agreement: Both variants are based on the same grammatical principles of ancient Greek, particularly with regard to the present stem and the active aspect.

In this way, it can be seen that the usage in Galatians 4:10 is syntactically just as justified as in the Pape examples, even if there are small differences in the concrete form (finite vs. nonfinite form) depending on the context. find.
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------------> 4. QUESTION: <------------
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Here is a clear summary (CORRECTION IF ANYTHING IS WRONG):

Reference to Pape examples:   Even in the Pape examples, in which παρατηρέω conveys the cautionary sense ("to beware of...") via a direct accusative object, the cautionary thought appears exclusively via the accusative object. If one were to translate strictly Greek-literally, you would have to resort to words like "observe" or "keep" there, just as in Galatians 4:10 – but not the reflexive "to beware of...".

1.) The direct accusative and the cautionary sense: In ancient Greek, a direct accusative object provides the reference to which the verb παρατηρέω refers. Grammatically, the direct object thus conveys the content without the verb being reflexively marked.

However, according to lexical sources such as LSJ, παρατηρέω has a broad range of meanings, including a cautionary, warning sense (i.e., "to be careful of something"). This cautionary sense can often be rendered idiomatically in German with a reflexive construction such as "sich hüten vor..." (to beware of...).

2.) The choice of the German translation: Since the ancient Greek does not contain an explicit reflexive expression, it depends on the context and the intended nuance whether one renders the German literally (e.g., "You observe..." or "You hold...") or interpretively (e.g., "You beware of...").

One could therefore say:

Literally/grammatically, the structure "direct accusative object" corresponds more to a translation such as "You observe..." (to beware of...).

Idiomatically/interpretatively, the cautionary sense – which is semantically present in ancient Greek – can also be rendered with "sich hüten vor..." (to beware of...), if the context suggests it.

3.) Conclusion on Pape's translation: Yes, Pape's decision to render the cautionary sense as The rendering "sich hüten vor..." is based on this interpretive configuration of the verb. It is therefore a choice that takes the nuances of the content into account.

This means:

The direct accusative object does not exclude a cautionary meaning.

It depends on the context and the intended semantic coloring whether one translates in German with a reflexive construction ("sich hüten vor...") or purely with a more neutral construction ("beobachten...").

In short: The direct accusative provides the necessary reference – but depending on the context, this cautionary meaning can also be expressed idiomatically as "sich hüten vor..." Pape's translation should therefore be understood as a legitimate, logical option that reflects the ambiguity of the Greek verb.

EXPLANATION OF THE EXPLANATION:
A) The "cautionary" meaning means: a warning notice, so here, a warning notice can be present in the meaning of the word. However, this does not have to be the case; it depends on the context, i.e., the meaning contained in the sentence, which is a matter of debate here, given what the churches make of it!
B) In no conceivable case does ancient Greek have a special, reflexively interpreted preposition that corresponds to the German "vor" in "sich hüten vor..." (to beware of...). The cautionary sense is conveyed exclusively through the direct accusative object and the context related to the meaning.
Prepositions such as πρό or ἔμπροσθεν primarily have spatial or temporal references, but no reflexive, warning function.

If you want to transport the cautionary, warning sense (i.e. the indication that one should pay attention to something) into German, you can do so indirectly via a reflexive construction such as "sich hüten vor..." (to beware of...). In German, what is present in ancient Greek as a direct accusative object is interpreted contextually in such a way that it carries the warning within itself.

Important to understand:

In ancient Greek, the verb G3906 "παρατηρέω" appears in cautionary (warning, attentive) uses, as found, for example, in in Pape's examples & IN GAL#4-10 ALWAYS together with a direct accusative object (e.g. "ἡμέρας, μῆνας ..."). Grammatically, this object provides the reference to which the sense of observing or paying attention is directed - in THESE Pape's examples & IN GAL#4-10 there is no explicit reflexive marker like "sich" (oneself) or a preposition like "vor" (before) in Greek, EVEN IF Ancient Greek in principle has means to express an action as self-directed (i.e. reflexive).

In German, however, the cautionary sense, i.e. a warning note ("to pay attention to something"), is often expressed with reflexive constructions (like "sich hüten vor ..."). This means that the translator expresses this cautionary aspect in common speech, even though it is not directly anchored in Greek grammar, IF A cautionary/warning meaning is recognizable.

YOU ARE ONLY TO CORRECT, SO ONLY LIST THE WRONG THINGS.
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______________ANSWER TO QUESTION 4:______________
NOTHING....
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=======> EXPLANATION OF THE CONTEXT: <=======
[THIS QUESTION WOULD BE TOO COMPLEX FOR THE AI, UNFORTUNATELY.]

Remember that, unlike my thinking on this, the statement of the Bible (in Daniel #7-25) is: "THE ANTICHRIST WILL SEEK PAGAN (Satanic) FEASTS & TO CHANGE THE LAW [WHICH INCLUDES ABOLISHING IT AS A POSSIBILITY - which the Catholic Church also did]", WHICH IS ABSURD, BECAUSE WHY WOULD SATAN CHANGE SATANIC (PAGAN) THINGS?

MY TRANSLATION'S VIEWPOINT: PAUL SAYS THAT HE FEARS THAT HE HAS STRUNG IN VAILED FOR THE GALATIANS, SINCE THE GALATIANS HAVE IN A CERTAIN WAY "GUARDED" THEMSELVES FROM CELEBRATING GOD'S FEASTS, THAT IS, KEEPING THEM AWAY FROM OR DON'T DO SO. Contextually, I understand this as just one POSSIBILITY, the OTHER POSSIBILITY would be a bad view of the feasts, e.g. in the sense of "this is what I must do to be saved", although GOD has set as ONE clear limit of SIN (breaking the law) the NOT caring for the sick, hungry & freezing (POOR) (in Matthew 25:41...43), furthermore those for cowards (➡), & those who practice magic (➡), & fornication (Revelation 21:8), & adultery (1 Corinthians 6:9-10), willfully returning to satanic deeds (2 Peter 2:22 WITH Revelation 22:15), & WHOEVER BLASPHES THE HOLY SPIRIT IS "IN THE MIDDLE" UNDER AN ETERNAL JUDGMENT (Mark 3:28-29), BUT LAND POSSIBLY NOT IN HELL, LIKE ALL THE ELSE NAMED, IF ONE FOUND GOD BEFORE AND LIVED A TRULY CHRISTIAN LIFE AND DID NOT REPENT, BUT IT IS HIGHLY QUESTIONABLE WHETHER SUCH BLASPHEISTS WILL NOT STILL SUBJECT TO ETERNAL JUDGMENT AFTER REPENTING TO GOD, IF THEY WERE PAGAN.

AND NOTE THAT THERE IS NO CONTEXT, NEITHER IN GALATIANS NOR IN THE ENTIRE BIBLE, THAT SAYS THAT GOD FINDS HIS FEASTS POOR [AS A PARADE EXAMPLE FOR BAD BEHAVIOR] & FINDS PAGAN FEASTS, OR PAGAN THINGS IN GENERAL, GREAT.

BUT THIS IS INTERPRETATION, & ANY PRECISE KNOWLEDGE ABOUT GALATIANS 4-10, FROM THIS TIME OF THE LETTER TO THE GALATIANS, IS MISSING.
HOW PEOPLE HAVE INTERPRETTED THE CENTURY AFTERWARDS DOESN'T MATTER!

& INFO ON THE CONTEXT:
ON THE CONTRARY: THE BIBLE SAYS (THEREFORE IT SAYS IN THE OVERALL CONTEXT OF THE BIBLE):

ONE SHALL NOT DO ANYTHING LIKE THE GENTILES! The OT texts in Leviticus 19:27 and 21:5 clearly demand that the beard not be altered in a way that was - in the view of the time - typical of pagan customs. THEREFORE, IT IS INTERPRETTED BY MANY CHRISTIANS AND THE JEWS AS: YOU SHALL NOT CUT YOUR BEARD/HAIR LIKE THE GENTILES DO.

& Exodus 23:32–33 and Exodus 34:15–16 warn against making alliances or treaties with the peoples of the land, because this could inevitably lead to adopting their gods and customs.

& Deuteronomy 7:1–6 emphasizes the difference between Israel and the Gentile peoples, for example by calling Israel “a holy people” who should not adopt the laws and customs of the other nations.

LEVITICUS 18:4 STATES THAT YOU SHOULD NOT ADOPT EGYPTIAN OR CANAANITE H2708 & H4941: YOU SHOULD DO NOT ACCEPT LAWS/CUSTOMS & LIVE LIKE THE GENTILES (Even if it only says EGYPTIAN & CANAANITE here, this clearly applies to all GENTILE PEOPLES)! (HERE, in LEVITICUS 18:4, THE SAME 2 WORDS ARE USED for the EGYPTIAN & CANAANITE laws/customs AS ARE USED FOR THE 613 DO'S & PROHIBITIONS PRESCRIBED BY THE JEWISH TRADITIONS & FESTIVALS! The 613 mitzvot have 2 categories, which in the rabbinic and medieval tradition were named with the Hebrew terms H2708 חֻקָּה (chukkah) [judicial and moral principles] & H4941 מִשְׁפָּט (mishpat) [customs or statutes], TRUE AS GOD USES THEM IN THE BIBLE.)

Prospectus 1 of 3 Proofs (including the latest scientific ones) that God exists and the Bible is the truth.	Brochure 2 of 3 Sins of the Churches	Leaflet 3 of 3 Islam and the Bible: An overview of contrasts, a comparison of the laws and future prophecies.
www.gods-light.net/proofs_en.html	www.gods-light.net/sins-of-the-churches_en.html	www.gods-light.net/the-islam_en.html